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NCERT Based MCQ, Biology Class-11th
NCERT Based MCQ with Explanation:
1. What is pollution defined as in the chapter?
(a) Any change in the environment
(b) An undesirable change in physical, chemical, or biological characteristics of air, land, water, or soil
(c) The addition of nutrients to water bodies
(d) The removal of natural resources
Explanation: The chapter defines pollution as an undesirable change in the physical, chemical, or biological characteristics of air, land, water, or soil, caused by agents called pollutants.
2. What act was passed by the Government of India in 1986 to protect the environment?
(a) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
(b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
(c) Environment (Protection) Act
(d) Forest Conservation Act
Explanation: The chapter mentions the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, as a measure to protect and improve the quality of air, water, and soil.
3. How much particulate matter can an electrostatic precipitator remove from thermal power plant exhaust?
(a) Over 50%
(b) Over 75%
(c) Over 99%
(d) Over 85%
Explanation: The chapter states that the electrostatic precipitator can remove over 99% of particulate matter from the exhaust of a thermal power plant.
4. What is the primary function of a scrubber in controlling air pollution?
(a) Removes particulate matter
(b) Removes gases like sulfur dioxide
(c) Converts carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide
(d) Filters nitrogen oxides
Explanation: The chapter explains that a scrubber removes gases like sulfur dioxide by passing exhaust through a spray of water or lime.
5. According to the CPCB, what size of particulate matter causes the greatest harm to human health?
(a) 5 micrometers or less
(b) 2.5 micrometers or less
(c) 10 micrometers or less
(d) 1 micrometer or less
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) identifies PM 2.5 (particulate matter 2.5 micrometers or less) as the most harmful to human health due to its ability to penetrate deep into the lungs.
6. What is the primary source of atmospheric pollution in metro cities?
(a) Industries
(b) Automobiles
(c) Power plants
(d) Construction
Explanation: The chapter highlights automobiles as a major cause of atmospheric pollution, especially in metro cities due to their increasing numbers.
7. What metal in catalytic converters reduces the emission of poisonous gases?
(a) Iron
(b) Platinum-palladium
(c) Copper
(d) Aluminum
Explanation: The chapter specifies that catalytic converters use expensive metals like platinum-palladium and rhodium to reduce emissions of poisonous gases.
8. Why should vehicles with catalytic converters use unleaded petrol?
(a) To reduce cost
(b) Lead inactivates the catalyst
(c) To increase efficiency
(d) To reduce noise
Explanation: The chapter explains that lead in petrol inactivates the catalyst in catalytic converters, rendering them ineffective.
9. When did the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act come into force in India?
(a) 1986
(b) 1981
(c) 1974
(d) 1987
Explanation: The chapter states that the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act came into force in 1981 and was amended in 1987 to include noise.
10. What sound level can permanently damage hearing if exposure is brief?
(a) 100 ~dB
(b) 120 ~dB
(c) 150 ~dB
(d) 130 ~dB
Explanation: The chapter notes that a brief exposure to sound levels of 150 dB or more, such as from a jet plane takeoff, can damage eardrums and impair hearing permanently.
NCERT Geography 10th MCQ11. By when were all buses in Delhi converted to run on CNG?
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2005
(d) 1999
Explanation: The chapter mentions that all buses in Delhi were converted to run on CNG by the end of 2002 following Supreme Court directives.
12. Why is CNG considered better than diesel for vehicles?
(a) It is more expensive
(b) It burns more efficiently
(c) It produces more pollutants
(d) It is easier to store
Explanation: The chapter explains that CNG burns more efficiently than diesel or petrol, leaving little unburnt residue, making it a cleaner fuel.
13. What is the sulfur content limit in diesel under Euro III norms?
(a) 50 ppm
(b) 150 ppm
(c) 350 ppm
(d) 500 ppm
Explanation: The chapter states that Euro III norms stipulate a sulfur content of 350 ppm in diesel.
14. When did Bharat Stage IV norms come into effect across India for 4-wheelers?
(a) April 2010
(b) April 2017
(c) April 2015
(d) April 2020
Explanation: According to Table 16.1 in the chapter, Bharat Stage IV norms were implemented throughout India for 4-wheelers since April 2017.
15. What act was passed in 1974 to safeguard water resources in India?
(a) Environment (Protection) Act
(b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
(c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
(d) Forest Conservation Act
Explanation: The chapter mentions the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, aimed at safeguarding water resources.
16. What percentage of impurities makes domestic sewage unfit for human use?
(a) 0.1 %
(b) 1 %
(c) 5 %
(d) 10 %
Explanation: The chapter states that a mere 0.1% impurities in domestic sewage make it unfit for human use.
17. What does BOD stand for in the context of water pollution?
(a) Biological Oxygen Demand
(b) Biochemical Oxygen Deficit
(c) Biological Organic Decomposition
(d) Biochemical Oxygen Destruction
Explanation: The chapter defines BOD as Biochemical Oxygen Demand, a measure of the amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water.
18. What causes a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen in rivers after sewage discharge?
(a) Algal blooms
(b) Microorganisms consuming oxygen
(c) Heavy metal pollution
(d) Thermal pollution
Explanation: The chapter explains that microorganisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter consume a lot of oxygen, leading to a decline in dissolved oxygen downstream of sewage discharge.
19. What is an algal bloom?
(a) Excessive growth of planktonic algae
(b) Death of fish due to oxygen depletion
(c) Increase in water temperature
(d) Reduction in water nutrients
Explanation: The chapter describes an algal bloom as the excessive growth of planktonic (free-floating) algae due to large amounts of nutrients in water.
20. What is the common name for Eichhornia crassipes?
(a) Water lily
(b) Water hyacinth
(c) Lotus
(d) Duckweed
Explanation: The chapter identifies Eichhornia crassipes as water hyacinth, also known as the "Terror of Bengal," a problematic aquatic weed.
21. What phenomenon increases the concentration of toxicants at successive trophic levels?
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Biomagnification
(c) Algal bloom
(d) Desertification
22. What toxicant is well-known for biomagnification in aquatic food chains?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) DDT
(d) Sulfur
23. What is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment called?
(a) Biomagnification
(b) Eutrophication
(c) Desertification
(d) Deforestation
24. What accelerates the natural eutrophication process?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Industrial effluents and sewage
(c) Noise pollution
(d) Air pollution
25. What type of wastewater can enhance fish growth in cold areas?
(a) Domestic sewage
(b) Thermal wastewater
(c) Industrial effluents
(d) Agricultural runoff
26. Where is the town of Arcata, known for its integrated wastewater treatment, located?
(a) Southern California
(b) Northern California
(c) Texas
(d) Florida
27. What is the second stage of Arcata's wastewater treatment process?
(a) Chlorine treatment
(b) Marshland purification
(c) Sedimentation
(d) Filtration
28. What is ecological sanitation primarily focused on?
(a) Treating industrial waste
(b) Recycling human excreta into natural fertilizer
(c) Reducing air pollution
(d) Preventing soil erosion
29. Where are 'EcoSan' toilets operational, as mentioned in the chapter?
(a) Delhi and Mumbai
(b) Kerala and Sri Lanka
(c) Bangalore and Chennai
(d) Punjab and Haryana
30. What are municipal solid wastes generally composed of?
(a) Only food wastes
(b) Paper, food wastes, plastics, glass, metals, etc.
(c) Only hazardous chemicals
(d) Radioactive materials
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